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Routing Protocols:Some Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

These Questions will help you guys who are taking Bachelor of Computer Science and IT during your exams. Cheers!!

951. Which can be true regarding VLANs?
A.) They are created by location
B.) They are created by function
C.) They are created by department
D.) They are created by group
Ans B C D

952. What is true when using DDR?
A.) HDLC is the preferred encapsulation
B.) You must use static routing
C.) You should use dynamic routing
D.) You should use ISDN
Ans B

953. If you are running Token Ring with Novell IPX routing, which encapsulation should
you use?
A.) SAP
B.) SNAP
C.) 802.5
D.) 802.2
Ans B

954 What are the 3 ways routers learn paths to destination networks?
A.) Dynamic
B.) Static
C.) Routing tables
D.) Default
Ans A B D

955. Bridges work at what layer of the OSI model?
A.) Data Link
B.) Network
C.) Physical
D.) Application
Ans A

956 What is the default switching method for the Cisco 5000 series?
A.) Cut-through
B.) Store-and-splice
C.) Latency
D.) Store-and-forward
Ans D

957. The benefits to segmenting with Bridges are which of the following? A.) Scalability
B.) Datagram filtering
C.) Manageability
D.) Reliability
Ans B C

958. What is the administrative distance for IGRP?
A.) 90
B.) 120
C.) 110
D.) 100
Ans D

959. On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the ‘D’ channel. What is the rate of
this channel?
A.) 64 Kbps
B.) 1.544 Mbps
C.) 128 Kbps
D.) 2.048 Mbps
E.) 16 Kbps
Ans E

960 MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model?
A.) Session
B.) Network
C.) Datalink
D.) Transport
E.) Application
F.) Presentation
Ans F

961 Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology?
A.) C- Series
B.) I- Series
C.) Q-Series
D.) 911-Series
E.) J-Series
F.) F-Series

AnsB
962. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?
A.) SQL B.) IP
C.) LLC
D.) DDP
E.) Ethernet
Ans E

963 In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control?
A.) B
B.) D
C.) E
D.) I
E.) Q
Ans B

964. Which protocol resolves an IP address to a MAC address?
A.) DHCP
B.) RARP
C.) ARP
D.) NBP
E.) DNS
Ans C

965. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?
A.) TCP
B.) IP
C.) SQL
D.) Token Ring
E.) LLC
Ans B

966 The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model?
A.) Physical
B.) Transport
C.) Session
D.) Datalink
E.) Presentation
F.) Network
Ans F
967. Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer?
A.) IP
B.) Netbios Names
C.) NFS
D.) Token Ring
E.) SQL
F.) RPC

Ans B C E F 968 What is the regional Telco office called, where the customers local loop terminates?
A.) Demarc
B.) DTE
C.) DCE
D.) CO
E.) CPE
Ans A

969. What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay?
A.) Annex D
B.) Q933A
C.) Cisco
D.) IETF
E.) ARPA
F.) Anex A
Ans C

970. Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a
route back out the direction from which the original packet came. This is an example of
which routing technology?
A.) Split Horizon
B.) LMI
C.) Triggered Updates
D.) Poison Reverse
E.) SYN, ACK
F.) DLCI
Ans A

971. Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the application
information between 2 different OS’s? For example, converting ASCII to EBCIDIC.
A.) Transport
B.) Application
C.) Physical
D.) Session
E.) Presentation
F.) Network

Ans E
972. Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it?
A.) Pause-and -forward
B.) Store-and-Forward
C.) Inverse ARP
D.) Fast Forward
E.) Cut-Through F.) Routing
Ans B

973. Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination?
A.) Datalink
B.) Physical
C.) Network
D.) Transport
E.) Session
Ans C

974. Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer?
A.) LLC
B.) SQL
C.) TCP
D.) Token Ring
E.) IP
Ans A D

975 What is the standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone?
A.) TE1
B.) TA
C.) LE
D.) TE2
E.) ET
Ans D

976. Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence?
A.) Triggered Updates.
B.) Split Horizon.
C.) Poison Reverse.
D.) Hold Down timers.
E.) Inverse ARP.
Ans A

977. Which type of switching is considered to be ‘wire speed?’
A.) Cut-Through
B.) Multiplexed
C.) Inverted
D.) Layer 4
E.) Store and Forward
F.) Layer 3

978. The Datalink layer works with which of the following:
A.) Packets
B.) Bits
C.) Globules D.) Frames
E.) Segments
Ans D

979. What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?
A.) They forward the frame before it is completely read.
B.) They work at wire speed.
C.) They are the same a Cut-Through switching.
D.) They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding.
E.) They decrease latency.
Ans D

980. Station A is transmitting data to station B, and expects an acknowledgment after
every 400 bytes. After transmitting data for a while, the two stations determine the line is
reliable and change to expecting and acknowledgement every 600 bytes. This is an
example of (pick the best answer only):
A.) BECN
B.) Sliding Windows
C.) Poison Reverse
D.) Countdown timers
E.) Split Horizon
F.) Count to infinity
Ans B

981. Which device listed below provides clocking for the line?
A.) DCE
B.) CPE
C.) CO
D.) DTE
E.) Demarc
Ans C

982 Which OSI Reference Layer controls application to application communication?
A.) Datalink
B.) Network
C.) Transport
D.) Session
E.) Physical
Ans D

983. The Datalink Layer is broken down into 2 layers, LLC and MAC. The LLC establishes
media independence and what else?
A.) Provides Windowing. B.) Provides flow control.
C.) Provides SAP’s (Service Access Points).
D.) The Datalink layer does not have sublayers.
E.) Provides SAP’s (Service Advertising Protocol).
F.) RIP Updates.
Ans B C

984 When a Distance Vector routing protocol detects that a connected network has gone
down, it sends out a special routing update packet, telling all directly connected routers
that the distance to the dead network is infinity. This is an example of which routing
technology?
A.) ICMP.
B.) Only Link State routing protocols have this intelligence.
C.) Triggered updates.
D.) Garrison-4.
E.) Split Horizon.
F.) Poison Reverse.
Ans F

985 Which of the following would not be displayed by the command ‘sho cdp neighbor
detail’?
A.) The incoming/outgoing interface.
B.) The hardware platform.
C.) One address per protocol.
D.) Amount of Flash Memory Available
E.) The routers hostname.
F.) The subnet mask, if IP is configured.
Ans D F

986. Which of the following are characteristics of UDP?
A.) UDP is connection oriented.
B.) UDP is used with TFTP.
C.) UDP is unreliable.
D.) UDP is connectionless.
E.) UDP is at the transport layer.
F.) UDP uses no acknowledgements.
Ans C D E F

987 What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?
A.) They work at wire speed.
B.) They are the same as Cut-Through switching in ‘prune’ mode.
C.) They forward based on transport layer info.
D.) They forward the frame before it is completely read.
E.) They increase latency.
Ans E

988. The Internet Protocol (IP) occurs at what layer of the seven layer model? A.) Physical
B.) Presentation
C.) Network
D.) Datalink
E.) Session
F.) Transport
Ans C

989. In regards to TCP/IP, which class of address allows for the fewest valid Internet
hosts?
A.) D
B.) E
C.) Classes are not used in TCP/IP.
D.) B
E.) C
F.) A
Ans E

990 For IPX, what is the DEFAULT Cisco Encapsulation on an Ethernet interface?
A.) novell-ether
B.) gns
C.) snap
D.) arpa
E.) sap
F.) dix
Ans A

991 Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_II. What is the matching
Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?
A.) dix
B.) sap
C.) arpa
D.) gns
E.) snap
F.) novell-ether
Ans C

992. There are 2 types of PPP authentication supported by the Cisco IOS. What are they?
A.) PAP
B.) PREDICTOR
C.) MD5
D.) CHAP
E.) STACKER
F.) MSCHAP Ans A D

993. Which of the following are examples of the Transport Layer?
A.) Token Ring
B.) UDP
C.) TCP
D.) IP
E.) SQL
F.) LLC
Ans B C

994. Which of the following describe SMTP?
A.) Used for downloading files to the router.
B.) Used for sending e-mail.
C.) Uses TCP.
D.) Uses UDP.
E.) Uses port 25.
F.) Used for managing IP devices.
Ans B E

995 What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN modem?
A.) ET
B.) LE
C.) TE2
D.) TE3
E.) TA
Ans E

996 Which of the following are Transport layer protocols?
A.) UDP
B.) TCP
C.) NBP
D.) IP
E.) SPX
Ans A B E

997. When determining whether or not to route a LAN segment, which rule of thumb do
you use?
A.) 60/40
B.) 50/50
C.) 80/20
D.) 90/10
E.) 70/30
Ans E

998 Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer? A.) TCP
B.) RPC
C.) SQL
D.) NFS
E.) Token Ring
Ans B C D

999. Which layer of the 7 layer model provides services to the Application layer over the
Session layer connection?
A.) Transport
B.) Application
C.) Session
D.) Network
E.) Datalink
F.) Presentation

Ans F
1000 What type of switching creates variable latency through the switch?
A.) Cut-Through
B.) Inverted
C.) Layer 4
D.) Multiplexed
E.) Store and Forward
Ans E

201 Identify the 3 methods routers learn paths to destinations?
A.) Dynamic routing
B.) None of the above,
configured by default
C.) Default routes
D.) Administrative distance
E.) Static routes
Ans A C E


Routers can learn paths via 3 different sources; static routes, dynamic routing protocols (i.e. RIP)
and default routes.

202 Identify the purpose of the following command ‘ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
10.1.0.1′
A.) Enabling a dynamic routing protocol
B.) Creating a static route to the 10.1.0.0 network
C.) Teaches the router about the distant network 192.168.100.0 and how it can be reached via
10.1.0.1
D.) Assigning the IP address 192.168.100.0 to an interface
Ans C
A static routes teaches the router about a distant network and the next hop to reach that network.
Command syntax:
ip route network-address subnet-mask next-hop-address

203 Based upon the 1st octet rule identify the range for a Class A address?
A.) 1 – 126
B.) 192 – 223
C.) 128 – 191
D.) 1 – 191
Ans A
Class A address has the 1st octet between 1 – 126. Class B between 128 – 191 and Class C
between 192 – 223.

204 What does a Standard IP Access-list use as test criteria?
A.) IP source address
B.) IP source and destination address, protocol numbers and port numbers
C.) IPX source and destination address
D.) Source MAC address

Ans A
Standard IP access list use only source address.

205 What is the function of the Transport layer and which protocols reside there?
A.) MAC addressing – IP
B.) Interhost communication – SQL, NFS
C.) Best effort Packet delivery – TCP, UDP
D.) End-to-end connections – TCP, UDP
Ans D
Layer 4, the Transport layer, is responsible for end-to-end connections. The two TCP/IP protocols
that reside there are TCP and UDP.

206 Identify the 3 Internet layer IP protocols?
A.) NetBios
B.) IPX
C.) ARP
D.) IP
E.) RARP
Ans C D E
NetBios and IPX are not layer 3 IP protocols. IP – Internet Protocol, ARP – Address Resolution
Protocol and RARP – Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.
207 IPX routing updates occur how often?
A.) Every 30 seconds
B.) Every 60 seconds
C.) Only as needed
D.) When the remote router asks for an update
Ans B
IPX RIP updates are exchanged every 60 seconds.

208 Identify 3 methods not used to prevent routing loops?
A.) Holddown timers
B.) Sequence numbers
C.) Triggered updates
D.) Split horizon E.) Area hierarchies
F.) Order of router startup

Ans B E F
Area hierarchies, sequence numbers and order of router startup all relate to Link State routing
protocols which do NOT incur routing loops.

209 Identify the hardware component that stores the bootstrap program?
A.) ROM
B.) NVRAM
C.) Booter load
D.) RAM
E.) Flash
Ans A
ROM contains the boot strap code.

210 Which OSI layer provides mechanical, electrical, procedural for activating, maintaining
physical link?
A.) Presentation
B.) Network
C.) Application
D.) Physical
E.) Transport
F.) Data-Link
Ans D
Layer 1 the Physical layer performs this function.
Layer 6 the Presentation layers performs this function.
CCNA

211 Identify 2 characteristics of PPP?
A.) Uses LLC to establish the link
B.) Default serial encapsulation
C.) Support multiple layer 3 protocols
D.) Offers two types of authentication; PAP and CHAP
Ans C D
PPP is not the default encapsulation and uses LCP not LLC to establish the link. It support
multiple layer 3 protocols and supports authentication.

212 Identify 3 characteristics of a connection oriented protocol?
A.) Path determination
B.) Flow control
C.) Acknowledgements D.) Uses hop count as metric
E.) 3 step handshake
Ans B C E
Connection oriented protocols must first establish the connection (3 step handshake), employ
methods to acknowledge the receipt of data (acknowledgements) and slow down the flow of data
if required (flow control).

213 What is the maximum hop count for IP RIP?
A.) Infinity
B.) 16
C.) 15
D.) 1
Ans C

15 is the maximum hop count, underscoring the size limitation of RIP.

214 What is Cisco’s default encapsulation method on serial interfaces?
A.) ANSI
B.) Cisco
C.) Q933a
D.) HDLC
Ans D
Cisco’s implementation of HDLC is only compatible with Cisco routers. It is the default
encapsulation type for serial interfaces.

215 Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater?
A.) Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame
B.) Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame
C.) Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame
D.) Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet
Ans C
A repeater regenerates the signal it receives, a switch makes decisions based upon MAC
addresses to determine whether a frame should be forwarded. Repeaters forward all packets.

216 Ping uses which Internet layer protocol?
A.) RARP
B.) ICMP
C.) ARP
D.) FTP
Ans B
Internet Control Message Protocol – ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service
provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP datagrams.
ICMP is used in the following events:
Destination Unreachable – If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo
to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable. Buffer Full – If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator.
Hops – Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it goes through the
maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP
echo to the host.
Ping – Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.

217 Which is true regarding store-and-forward switching method?
A.) Latency varies depending on frame-length
B.) Latency is constant
C.) It is default for all Cisco switches
D.) It only reads the destination hardware address before forwarding the frame
Ans A
Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC. If a
CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes
including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then
looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The
frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Storeand-Forward
method. The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased.
Latency also varies with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency associated.
This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being
forwarded.

218 Which three of the following are true statements about connection-oriented sessions?
A.) The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception
B.) Any segments not acknowledged the are retransmitted by the receiver
C.) A manageable data flow is maintained in order to avoid congestion, overloading and loss of
any data
D.) Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination
Ans A C D
Connection-oriented services are useful for transmitting data from applications that are intolerant
of delays and packet re-sequencing. FTP and Telnet applications are based on connectionoriented
services as well as some voice and video programs. Any segment that is not
acknowledged by the received is retransmitted by the sender.

219 What does a metric of 16 hops represent when using RIP?
A.) Number of hops to the destination
B.) Destination unreachable
C.) Number of routers
D.) Bandwidth
Ans B
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that used hop count as its
metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable. RIP updates are
broadcast every 30 seconds by default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

220 You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two
factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network?
A.) The location of DHCP servers B.) The volume of traffic on each subnet
C.) The number of subnets on the network
D.) The location of the default gateway
E.) The number of host IDs on each subnet
Ans C E
When determining which subnet mask to use, you must determine how many hosts and how
many subnets are required.

221 What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A.) TCP is connection-oriented; UDP uses acknowledgements only
B.) TCP is connection-oriented; UDP is connectionless
C.) Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing
D.) TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless
The correct answer(s): B
TCP provides guaranteed connection oriented delivery of packets, UDP does not.

222 What does the ‘S’ mean when looking at the routing table?
A.) Statically connected
B.) Directly connected
C.) Dynamically attached
D.) Shutdown route

Ans A
Statically connected routes are those that an administrator has manually entered into the routing
table.

223 Why would you use static routing instead of dynamic routing?
A.) When you want automatic updates of the routing tables
B.) All the time
C.) When you have very few routes and want to conserve bandwidth
D.) When you have a gateway of last resort

Ans C
Static routes are typically used when there are very few routes and you want to conserve
bandwidth. Since routing protocols are constantly sending their updates across the wire, it can
cause a great deal of congestion.

224 On Cisco catalyst 5000 how would you set the second port on the controller in the first
slot to full duplex?
A.) Set port duplex 1/1 full
B.) Set port duplex 1/2 full
C.) Set port duplex 0/1 full
D.) Set port duplex 0/2 full
Ans B
The syntax is: set type duplex slot/port <full/half>

225 What does the acronym ARP stand for? A.) Address Resolution Phase
B.) ARP Resolution Protocol
C.) Address Resolution Protocol
D.) Address Recall Protocol
Ans C
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolved IP addresses to MAC addresses.

226 What is the default encapsulation of Netware 3.12?
A.) Ethernet_II
B.) 802.5
C.) 802.2
D.) 802.3
Ans C
The 802.2 Frame Type is the default frame-type for Netware 3.12.

227 Regarding frame relay, which of the following statements are true?
A.) You must use ANSI encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
B.) You must use IETF encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
C.) You must use Q.933a encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
D.) You must use Cisco encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
Ans B
Cisco’s encapsulation for Frame relay is proprietary. To communicate with non-Cisco equipment
when using frame-relay encapsulation, the IETF method must be used.

228 What is required to support full-duplex Ethernet?
A.) Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link
B.) Automatic sensing operation by all connected stations
C.) Loopback and collision detection disabled
D.) Full-duplex NIC cards
Ans C D
Full duplex ethernet requires that the NIC supports full-duplex, and loopback and collision
detection are disabled.

229 Which layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended
communication exists?
A.) Application
B.) Network
C.) Session
D.) Presentation
E.) Transport
Ans A

The Application layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended
communication exists.

230 What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?
A.) Handles access to shared media B.) Manages protocol access to the physical network medium
C.) Provides SAPs for higher level protocols
D.) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer
Ans B D
Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to the physical
network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC addresses, which allow multiple
devices to uniquely identify one another at the data link layer.
CCNA

231 Describe End to End network services: (Choose all that apply)
A.) Best Route selection
B.) Accomplished Segment by Segment, each segment is autonomous
C.) Flow Control & Data Integrity
D.) Best efforts packet delivery
Ans A B C D
All of the above End to End network services.

232 Which of the following provide correct information about a protocol at the transport
layer of the OSI model?
A.) UDP – Provides Connectionless datagrams service
B.) TCP – Provides Connection Oriented Services
C.) SMTP – Provides Mail Exchange
D.) IP – Route determination
E.) TCP – Provides Flow Control and Error Checking
F.) FTP – Transfers of Files
Ans A B E
Only TCP and UDP work at the Transport layer of the above choices. IP is a Network layer
protocol. SMTP and FTP are application layer protocols.

233 Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing
decisions?
A.) UDP
B.) IP
C.) TCP
D.) ARP
Ans B
Internet Protocol – IP provides routing and a single interface to the upper layers. No upper layer
protocol and now lower layer protocol have any functions relating to routing. IP receives
segments from the transport layer and fragments them into packets including the hosts IP
address.

234 Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer
application, session establishment, and tear down of virtual circuits?
A.) Session
B.) Network C.) Physical
D.) Transport
E.) Application
F.) Presentation
Ans D
The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission.
Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual
circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent
data transfer. The ‘windows’ works at this level to control how much information is transferred
before an acknowledgement is required.

235 Which of the following are logged when IP access list logging is enabled?
A.) source address
B.) protocol
C.) source port
D.) destination address
E.) access list number
F.) destination port
Ans A B C D E F
All of the above are logged when IP access list logging is enabled.

236 What’s the default CDP holdtime in seconds for Cisco routers?
A.) 30 seconds
B.) 180 seconds
C.) 90 seconds
D.) 60 seconds

Ans B
Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information
on other routers and switches with a single command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By
default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180
seconds. CDP is enabled by default.

237 Which two of the following protocols are used at the Transport layer?
A.) ARP
B.) UDP
C.) ICMP
D.) RARP
E.) TCP
F.) BootP
Ans B E
TCP and UDP operate at the Transport layer.

238 LAN stands for which of the following?
A.) Local Area Network
B.) Local Arena Network
C.) Local Area News
D.) Logical Area Network
Ans A
LAN stands for Local Area Network

239 Choose three reasons why the networking industry uses a layered model:
A.) It facilitates systematic troubleshooting
B.) It allows changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers
C.) It allows changes to occur in all layers when changing one protocol
D.) It clarifies how to do it rather than what general function to be done
E.) It clarifies what general function is to be done rather than how to do it
Ans A B E

Why do we have a Layered Model?
1) It reduces complexity
2) Allows for a standardized interface
3) Facilitates modular engineering
4) Ensures interoperable technology
5) Accelerates evolution
6) Simplifies teaching and learning

240 Which layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the
intended communication partner?
A.) Application
B.) Presentation
C.) Transport
D.) Session
E.) Network
Ans A
The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and receiving applications.
Program-to program communication. Identify and establish the availability of the intended
communication partner, and determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication.
Popular application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP

241 A ISDN PRI circuit can be described as which of the following?
A.) 24 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel
B.) 23 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel
C.) 2-D channels and 1-C channel
D.) 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel
Ans B
There are two types of ISDN Channels:
BRI (Basic Rate Interface) – is 2 64Kbps B channels for data and one 16Kbps D channel for link
management.
PRI (Primary Rate Interface) – is 23Kbps B channels and 1 64Kbps D channel.

242 What are 3 ways to provide login access to router?
A.) Console
B.) TFTP C.) Rlogin
D.) Auxiliary Port
E.) X Windows
F.) Telnet
Ans A D F
The three ways to provide login access to the router are via the Console port, auxiliary port, and
virtual terminal (Telnet)

243 Which of the following statements are true?
A.) Store and forward switching creates variable latency through the switch
B.) Cut through switching creates variables latency through the switch
C.) Cut through switching works at wire speed
D.) Store and forward switching works at wire speed
Ans A C
The larger the packet, the greater the latency when using a switch with Store and Forward
methods. This is due to the fact that Store and Forward switching copies the entire Frame into its
buffer before forwarding the frame. Cut Through switching only examines the destination address
before forwarding the packet and does not copy the frame into its buffer.

244 Which of the following can reply to a Novell Get Nearest Server (GNS) request?
A.) Local Novell server
B.) Remote Novell Printer
C.) Cisco router
D.) Novell client
Ans A C
Cisco routers can act like Novell servers to an extent. They can answer Get Nearest Server
request by clients. Of course, both Local and Remote Novell servers can reply to the GNS
request. As with Novell servers, Cisco routers can be configured to either reply, or not reply to
GNS request by clients. Since each Novell server and Cisco router builds a dynamic table of
resources, they can reply to a clients request for the available resources closest to them.

245 Identify the 3 kinds of routes IGRP advertises?
A.) Interior
B.) Dynamic
C.) System
D.) Exterior
Ans A C D
IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco. The maximum hop count is 255,
and it uses a combination of variables to determine a composite metric. IGRP has an
administrative distance of 100. There are three types of routes IGRP advertises: 1) Interior, 2)
Exterior, and 3) System.

246 What is the routing metric used by RIP?
A.) Route poisoning
B.) Split horizon
C.) Hop Count
D.) TTL
Ans C
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that used hop count as its
metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable. RIP updates are
broadcast every 30 seconds by default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

247 What is the default encapsulation and frame type on an Ethernet interface when
enabling Novell?
A.) SNAP
B.) Ethernet_II
C.) 802.2
D.) 802.3
E.) SAP
F.) Token_SNAP
Ans D

By default, when an encapsulation type is not specified, the 802.3 frame type is used.
248 What is true when creating static route?
A.) The mask parameter is optional
B.) The administrative distance is required
C.) The gateway parameter is required
D.) The administrative distance is optional
Ans C D
When creating a static route, the gateway parameter is required, but the administrative distance
is optional. The correct syntax is: Router(config)# ip route <network> <mask> <address |
interface> <admin distance>

249 Of the following switching types, which one has the highest latency?
A.) Cut-through
B.) None
C.) Store-and-forward
D.) Fragment Free
Ans C
Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC. If a
CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes
including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then
looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The
frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Storeand-Forward
method. The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased.
Latency also varies with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency associated.
This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being
forwarded.

250 What does the IPX maximum path command do?
A.) Allows you to disable the TTL on an IPX packet
B.) This parameter is only used in NLSP routing
C.) Sets the maximum metric that can appear in the routing table
D.) Configures round robin load sharing over multiple equal metric paths (parallel paths)
Ans D
The ipx maximum path command allows you to configure parallel paths for load sharing.CCNA

101 What IP command would you use to test the entire IP stack?
A.) Stack-test

B.) Arp
C.) Telnet
D.) Ping
E.) Trace
Ans C
Because Telnet is an application and it resides at the top of the stack it traverses down the stack
and up the stack at the receiving end.

102 Identify the 2 hardware components used to manage and/or configure a router?
A.) Auxiliary port
B.) ROM port C.) Management port
D.) Console port
Ans A D
The 2 hardware ports used to configure the router are the console and auxiliary ports.

103 What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection?
A.) 1200 baud
B.) 1.544 Mbps (T1)
C.) 10 Mbps
D.) 96Kpbs
Ans B
The default bandwidth is T1.

104 Identify 2 functions of IPX access-lists?
A.) Control SAP traffic
B.) Limit number of Novell servers on a network
C.) Limit number of workstations on a network
D.) Block IPX traffic
Ans A D
IPX access lists are used to restrict IPX traffic and SAP broadcasts.

105 Identify 2 HDLC characteristics?
A.) Default serial encapsulation
B.) Open standard
C.) Supports Stacker compression
D.) Supports point-to-point and multipoint
Ans A D
HDLC is the default serial encapsulation and supports point-to-point and multipoint. It is not an
open standard and does not support compression.

106 Identify 3 IP applications?
A.) AURP
B.) ARP
C.) Telnet
D.) SMTP
E.) DNS
F.) RARP

Ans C D E
ARP and AURP are not part the application layer of the TCP/IP stack. SMTP – Simple Mail
Transfer Protocol, Telnet, DNS – Domain Name Services (name to IP resolution).

107 Identify 3 LAN technologies?
A.) FDDI
B.) HDLC
C.) HSSI D.) X.25
E.) 802.3
F.) 802.5
Ans A E F
The question is asking for 3 LAN technologies, HDLC, HSSI and X.25 are all WAN technologies.

108 Identify the 4 that are not LAN technologies?
A.) HDLC
B.) FDDI
C.) 802.5
D.) HSSI
E.) SDLC
F.) Frame Relay
Ans A D E F
802.5 and FDDI are LAN technologies

109 Which OSI layer supports the communication component of an application?
A.) Data-Link
B.) Physical
C.) Session
D.) Presentation
E.) Application
F.) Transport
Ans E
Layer 7 the Application layer performs this function.

110 Identify the length of an IPX address and it’s components?
A.) 80 bits, 48 bits network and 32 bits node
B.) 32 bits, 16 bits network and 16 bits node
C.) None of the above
D.) 80 bits, 32 bits network and 48 bits node
Ans D
IPX address has 2 components; network and node. The network address is 32 bits and the node
is 48 bits, total of 80 bits.
Layer 4 the Transport layer performs this function.

111 Identify the administrative distance and appropriate routing protocol?
A.) RIP = 255, IGRP = 100
B.) RIP = 100, IGRP = 120 C.) RIP = 1, IGRP = 0
D.) RIP = 120, IGRP = 100
Ans D
The administrative distance for RIP is 120 and IGRP is 100. The lower the AD the better the
routing information.

112 Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC?
A.) Data link
B.) Network
C.) Physcial
D.) Transport
Ans): A
Layer 2 the Data-Link layer incorporates the MAC and LLC sublayers

113 If configuring a Cisco router to connect to a non-Cisco router across a Frame Relay
network, which encapsulation type would you select?
A.) Q933a
B.) ISDN
C.) IETF
D.) CISCO
E.) ANSI
Ans C
There are two types of Frame Relay encapsulations; Cisco and IETF. IETF is required when
connecting a Cisco to a non-Cisco router.

114 Identify the 2 items that TCP and UDP share in common?
A.) Both use port numbers to identify upper level applications
B.) Operate at the Network layer
C.) Both are Transport protocols
D.) Both are reliable communications
Ans A C

TCP and UPD are both layer 4 Transport protocols and both use port number to identify upper
level applications.

115 Identify 3 characteristics of IP RIP?
A.) Distance vector
B.) Administrative distance is 120
C.) Periodic updates every 60 seconds
D.) Uses a composite metric
E.) Can load balance
Ans A B E
IP RIP is a distance vector protocol, it can load balance up to 4 equal cost paths and it’s rating of
trustworthiness is 120.

116 Which of the following is a layer 2 device?
A.) Switch B.) Router
C.) Repeater
D.) Hub
Ans A
A Hub and Repeater are layer 1 devices. A Router is a layer 3 device.

117 Identify the definition of demarcation?
A.) Date in which the WAN service contract expires
B.) Cabling which extends from the WAN service provider to the customer
C.) Division of responsibility, where the CPE ends and the local loop begins
D.) Equipment which is located at the customer premises
Ans C
Demarcation is the point in which responsibility changes hands.

118 Identify the 3 key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A.) Off by default
B.) Will allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers
C.) Verify connectivity
D.) Open standard
E.) Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured
Ans B C E
CDP is used for 2 basic reasons; neighbor connectivity and layer 3 discovery if configured. It is
proprietary and is on by default.

119 Identify the 3 characteristics of IPX RIP?
A.) Distance vector
B.) Does not support multiple paths
C.) 60 second updates
D.) Default encapsulation is SAP
E.) Uses ticks and hop count as a metric
Ans A C E
IPX RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, it does support multiple paths, the default
encapsulation is ‘novell-ether’, it uses tick count as a primary metric and hop count as a tie
breaker and it sends it’s updates every 60 seconds.

120 Identify the access-list range for an extended IP access-list?
A.) 800 – 899
B.) 1 – 99
C.) 1000 – 1099
D.) 100 – 199
Ans D
IP extended access-lists use the number range of 100-199.CCNA Interview Questions Page 13

121 Identify the X.25 addressing standard?
A.) X.121
B.) X.25a
C.) ITU-1
D.) Q933a
Ans A
The X.25 layer 3 addressing standards is X.121.

122 Identify 3 features of IGRP?
A.) Composite metric
B.) New horizon
C.) Flash updates
D.) 60 periodic updates
E.) Poison reverse
Ans A C E
IGRP uses a composite metric made up of bandwidth and delay by default, it updates every 60
seconds and will trigger an update if the topology changes.


123 Where is the backup configuration file stored?
A.) RAM
B.) ROM
C.) Console
D.) NVRAM
Ans D
One location to store the backup configuration is NVRAM.

124 Identify the correct pair of Novell Ethernet encapsulation and Cisco terminology?
A.) Ethernet II, Snap
B.) Ethernet 802.3, Novell-Ether
C.) Ethernet SNAP, Arpa
D.) Ethernet 802.2, Snap
Ans B
The default IPX LAN encapsulation is Novell-Ether which is 802.3

125 Identify 3 characteristics regarding IP access-lists?
A.) Can be configured as a standard access-list
B.) Can be run from another router running IP
C.) Can be configured as a named access-list
D.) Are the same as IPX access-lists
E.) Can be configured as an extended access-list
Ans A C E
There are 3 types of IP access-lists; standard, extended and named. Named access-lists can be either standard or extended depending on how they are configured.

126 Identify 3 ways in which a router can be configured?
A.) TFTP
B.) Nvram
C.) Ping
D.) Console
E.) Trace
Ans A B D
Changes to the configuration can be entered via the console, a config stored in NVRAM or on a
TFTP server. Trace and ping are tools to verify connectivity.

127 A traffic light is an example of what type of mechanism?
A.) Collision detection
B.) Flow control
C.) Sequence numbering
D.) Network management
Ans B
A Traffic light is an example of flow control.

128 Windowing is a type of?
A.) Negative acknowledgement
B.) Address resolution
C.) Layer transition mechanism
D.) Flow control
Ans D
Windowing allow the sender and receiver to dictate how much information that can be received
prior to an acknowledgement. It is a form of flow control.

129 Identify the 2 types of access-list filters that control SAP traffic?
A.) Novell-ether
B.) Arpa
C.) Input-sap-filter
D.) Round-robin
E.) Output-sap-filter
Ans C E
SAP’s can be blocked by 2 methods; inbound and outbound.

130 Identify the 3 guidelines for routers in the same autonomous system?
A.) Must be configured for IGRP or RIP
B.) Interconnected
C.) Assigned the same autonomous system number
D.) Configured for the same routing protocol
E.) Must be same model of router
Ans B C D
Autonomous system must be interconnected, assigned the same AS # and configured with the same routing protocol.
CCNA Interview Questions Page 14

131 Identify the hardware component used to store buffers, tables, running-configuration
etc?
A.) NVRAM
B.) ROM
C.) RAM
D.) Flash
Ans C
RAM is the dynamic memory area. ROM contains the boot strap code, NVRAM contains the
startup-config and Flash contains the IOS.

132 Identify 3 UDP characteristics?
A.) Reliable communication protocol
B.) Applications that use UDP must incorporate reliability
C.) Connection-less oriented
D.) Incorporates no handshaking

Ans B C D
UPD is a layer 4 Transport protocol. It is connection-less because it does establish a connection
therefore the 3 step handshake is not needed, it does NOT implement any flow control or
acknowledgments. Any application that uses UDP must incorporate any needed reliability.

133 Identify the IPX standard access-list number range?
A.) 600 – 699
B.) 1000 – 1099
C.) 1 – 99
D.) 100 – 199
E.) 800 – 899
Ans E
IPX standard access-list range is 800-899.

134 Which OSI layer provides best effort end to end packet delivery?
A.) Data-Link
B.) Presentation
C.) Network
D.) Transport
E.) Physical
F.) Application
Ans C
Layer 3 the Network layer performs this function.

135 Identify the 2 methods to modify the routers boot sequence?
A.) Setup program
B.) Boot system commands C.) RXBoot
D.) Config-register
Ans B D
‘Boot system’ command the ‘config-register’ are used to manipulate the boot sequence.

136 Identify the 3 pieces of hardware you would not install to prevent broadcasts?
A.) Switch
B.) Repeater
C.) Bridge
D.) Router
Ans A B C
Router are implemented not only to break up networks into smaller segments but they are used to
block broadcasts.

137 Identify 2 features of PPP PAP authentication?
A.) Username and password is sent in clear text
B.) Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection
C.) More secure than CHAP
D.) Remote node is control of authentication process
Ans A D
PPP PAP authentication sends the username and passwords in clear text and the remote node
initiates the authentication process.

138 Identify the switching method that examines the destination MAC address as the
frame is being received then begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire
frame?
A.) Fragment-free
B.) Store and Forward
C.) Cut-through
D.) Fast forward
Ans C
Cut through examines the destination MAC address and begins forwarding the frame prior to
receiving the entire frame.

139 Identify 1 characteristic of RARP?
A.) IP to MAC address translation
B.) Connectionless delivery of packets
C.) Can be used to initiate remote O/S load sequence
D.) Generates error and control messages
Ans C
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol is used to obtain a layer 3 address if the MAC address is
known which then facilitates the loading of the O/S.

140 Identify the protocol to test connectivity without configuring any layer 3 protocols?
A.) TCP
B.) Ping C.) IP
D.) CDP
E.) Telnet
Ans D

141 LMI operates between the Frame Switch and what other device?
A.) CPE device
B.) Another Frame Switch
C.) X.25 switch
D.) Novell File Server
Ans A
LMI stands for local management interface. It operates between the Frame Relay switch and the
customer equipment.

142 Identify IPX SAP and it’s purpose?
A.) Sonet Access Pipe – interface to Sonet ring
B.) Service Advertising Protocol – advertise services
C.) Server Appletalk Protocol – appletalk directory services
D.) Service Access Point – identify upper layer protocols
Ans B
SAP is an Novell protocol to advertise services.

143 Identify the default values that make up IGRP’s composite metric?
A.) Bandwidth
B.) Load
C.) Reliability
D.) MTU
E.) Delay
Ans A E
IGRP can be configured to use all 5 within it’s metric. By default it uses bandwidth and delay.

144 Identify the default serial encapsulation?
A.) ISDN
B.) HDLC
C.) SDLC
D.) Frame Relay
E.) PPP
Ans B
The default serial encapsulation is HDLC.

145 Identify the purpose of ARP?
A.) Avoiding routing loops
B.) Determining a workstation’s IP address
C.) Sending a directed broadcast
D.) Determining a workstation’s MAC address
Ans D
ARP is used to find a devices MAC address given an IP address.

146 What is the purpose of the DLCI?
A.) Identifies the remote routers
B.) Contained with a 802.2 frame for routing purposes
C.) Used with PPP during authentication
D.) Identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network
Ans D
DLCI stands for Data Link Connection Identifier. It identifies the local PVC.

147 Identify 3 characteristics of the Network layer (OSI layer 3)?
A.) Connection oriented
B.) Path determination
C.) Supports multiplexing
D.) Manages sessions
E.) Packet forwarding
Ans B C E
The network layer is responsible for routing which entails learning the paths, selecting the best
path and forwarding the packet. Because it services multiple layer 4 protocols it multiplexes.

148 Identify 3 characteristics of switches?
A.) Increase available bandwidth
B.) Decrease broadcast traffic
C.) Support full duplex in a multipoint topology
D.) Make forwarding decision using MAC address
E.) Create collision domains
Ans A D E
Switches operate at layer 2. They increase bandwidth by reducing the number of devices sharing
the media. They isolate collisions. Like a bridge they forward traffic based upon layer 2 address/
MAC address.

149 Which OSI layer handles physical address, network topology?
A.) Presentation
B.) Physical
C.) Transport
D.) Application
E.) Data-Link
F.) Network
Ans E
Layer 2 the Data-Link layer performs this function.

150 Identify 2 reasons for disabling CDP?
A.) If the router is not configured for RIP
B.) Save bandwidth by eliminating overhead
C.) If the router is configured for Appletalk D.) When connected to a non-Cisco router
Ans B D
CDP can be disabled here are a couple of reasons. Connecting a Cisco router to a non-Cisco
router. Don’t want to exchange CDP information to save bandwidth.
CDP can be used to verify connectivity prior to any layer 3 protocols being configured.
CCNA